I was merely correcting the poster who thought the Founding Fathers intended to protect the right to keep and bear arms for all persons. They intended no such thing. They didn't even protect it for all citizens.
Then why didn't they say that? Why does the 2nd read "the right of the people instead of "the right of certain citizens" or "the right of the classes of citizens named herein"?
You don't even lie well. You really shouldn't make such a hobby of it.
L
If that was indeed their intent, they must have said so. Care to point to the part of the Constitution that limits who gets to enjoy the 2nd Amendment rights? Being very literate people trying to be very clear, surely they must have made it more specific than, say, a phrase as broad as "the people".
Well, let’s cut through the nonsense. Do you believe that Americans today have the right of self-defense? (which means firearms of course)