If that was indeed their intent, they must have said so. Care to point to the part of the Constitution that limits who gets to enjoy the 2nd Amendment rights? Being very literate people trying to be very clear, surely they must have made it more specific than, say, a phrase as broad as "the people".
Broad? I just finished posting the U.S. Supreme Court's definition, and they defined it quite narrowly. The Founders knew who they were talking about. If you need a definition from the U.S. Constitution, look no further than Article I, Section 2 (my underline):
"The House of Representatives shall be composed of members chosen every second year by the people of the several states ..."
Who were they? Who voted? All persons? All individuals? All citizens?
In 1789, they were white, males, citizen landowners. Tell me who else voted back then. Tell me who else belonged in the group, "the people" -- Women? Children? Indians? Slaves? Foreigners? Illegals? Prisoners? The insane?
I'm done explaining. Now it's your turn. You tell me the original meaning of "the people" in 1789 when the second amendment was written. Who's rights were the Founding Fathers protecting?