Then tell me, which action actually remits (paid for) your sins? The shedding of Christ's Blood, or your Baptism? And while you're at it, was Christ's death and resurrection an actual purchase of your redemption, or only a potential purchase, conditioned on your response? Please answer in light of Jesus' own statements:
All that the Father gives Me shall come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will in no way cast out. (Joh 6:37)And this is the will of the Father who sent Me, that of all which He has given Me I should lose nothing but should raise it up again at the last day. (Joh 6:39)
No one can come to Me unless the Father who has sent Me draw him, and I will raise him up at the last day. (Joh 6:44)
And He said, Because of this I said to you that no one can come to Me unless it was given to him from My Father. (Joh 6:65)
You are confusing the action os obedience by men with the action of Christ in the Atonement.
The only one confused here is you. Christ shed his blood as the ultimate sacrifice. That is without question. But if we have to do nothing to accept that sacrifice on our behalf, then everyone is saved, which is obviously false in light of this passage:
Matthew 7:14 -
Because strait [is] the gate, and narrow [is] the way, which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find it.
And if you are trying to take the "limited atonement" route, you have some serious issues with teachings of the New Testament.
1 Timothy 2:4 - Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
If only the "elect" are to be saved, why does the Bible say here that God would have all men, or would want all men, to be saved?