Maybe you should spend a little time looking at the Greek. It doesn't say what you want it to say. Again, you are trying to make another requirement for salvation other than grace through faith in Christ. You are adding to the Gospel. Baptism is not what remits your sins. The Atonement is for the remission of sins.
Baptism is a sacrament instituted by Christ to demonstrate God's Grace, the same as the Lord's Supper. But neither the Lord's Supper or Baptism saves you, nor does Baptism perform the actual taking away of sins. Try as you will to dance around it, that's what you're saying. To say that Baptism is FOR the remission of sins, you are saying that Baptism is what actually remits the sins. It is the Atonement of Christ for you which takes away your sins, when you believe.
You are saying that a man may believe on Christ, but is still in his sins until he is Baptised. Then you throw in the Dispensational dodge to get around the obvious contradiction presented by the Thief on the Cross. Your theology is a pretzel, it's so twisted.
It isn't my theology, it is that taught in the Bible. If, as you suggest, "eis aphesin ton harmartion humon" is translated as "because of the remission of your sins" in Acts 2:38, then "eis aphesin hamartion" is translated as "because of the remission of sins" in Matthew 26:28.
This would mean Christ said he shed His blood because we were already forgiven, which I know you will deny wholeheartedly.
There are also 2 other verses that use "eis aphesin hamartion". They are Mark 1:4 and Luke 3:3. Both are talking about John's baptism as being "of repentance for the remission of sins". I also don't see you saying that those should be translated as "because of the remission of sins".
If it is "becuase of the remission of sins" in one passage, it must be translated that way in all four. Please, be consistent.