The finite meaning went out the door when neither Thomas Jefferson or James Madison(the Constitution's author) challenged the ruling in Marbury Vs Madison in 1803.
In that decision the court ruled that the Constitution had no "finite" meaning. That decision written by Chief Justice Marshall ruled the constitution meant what ever 5 of the nine justices said it meant that day. The reserved the right to decide it meant somthing else tomorrow.
Since that time there have been hundreds of decisions by the surpreme court that violate the "finite" meaning of the Document. Many rulings have created provisions that are not even mentioned in the document .. The Constitution expressly says that the court has no jurisdiction over things not in the constitution. To get around that he court just says provisions exist even when they don't. Abortion is an exmaple. The word abortion does not exist in the text of the constitution. The Supreme Court ruled the word was in the penumbra of the constitution. Look up the word Penumbra to get a clue.
To claim that the constitution has "finite" meaning is to just ingore the two hundred and one years that have transpired since it last had "finite" meaning.
If you had ever studied history, you would know the truth of what I say.
Marbury did no such thing. It meant that a majority of the Court could rule an act of Congress to be unconstitutional and therefore void. This is a far cry from ordering remedies, which is the real problem.
ML/NJ
If congress did their job back during Marbury vs. Madison, that court decision would have been declared invalid by congress. Congress is supposed to set the limitations of the Judiciary since they are the elected representatives.
Congress could end Judicial tyranny today if they got backbone. Unfortunately, we have a disloyal Democrat party and a weak spined group of Republicans there right now.
How many (if any) commissions did Mr. Marbury recieve as a result of this ruling?