[xzins]

You would say: Man "lathers up" through his own personal response. I would say: God "lathers up" man so that he can respond. Does this accurately reflect our different perspectives?

No, it is not accurate.

I would exactly say the same: "God 'lathers up' man so that he can respond.

Where I perceive our difference is this:

You say: "God lathers up man and responds for the man, and it is a permanent lathering."

I say: "God 'lathers up' man so that he can respond, and then the man is able to make the choice for permanent 'lathering.'"

I'm not sure that this is what P-Marlowe would say.

[Wrigley]

I say: "God 'lathers up' man so that he can respond, and then the man is able to make the choice for permanent 'lathering.'"

So man can resist the call of God.

[nobdysfool]

You say: "God lathers up man and responds for the man, and it is a permanent lathering."

Maybe you want to think that's what we're saying, but no Calvinist has ever said that God responds for the man. That is a gross misrepreentation of the Calvinist position, and I think you know that it is. I expect a little more accuracy from you than that, xzins. As long as we've been discussing it, you know that is not what we say.

[lockeliberty]

You say: "God lathers up man and responds for the man, and it is a permanent lathering."

Nope. I never said that. My exact words were: so that man can respond

Your perception is wrong.