Posted on 01/29/2003 11:29:48 AM PST by Notwithstanding
Of course not all do. But homosexual men are much more likely to go after teenage boys than heterosexual men after teenage girls. In the Catholic homosexual molestation scandal, a minority of priests (homosexual men) brought about 90% of the molestations against teenage boys.
Clint, it's much more difficult for a woman to FORCE a man to have sex than vice versa. I didn't expect to have to explain that. Also, men tend to be much more sexually aggressive. I didn't expect to have to explain THAT, either. But the fact remains that everyone experiences unwanted advances that sometimes cross the line, and those are wrong. They come from heterosexuals just as often as homosexuals. Can we agree on that?
I have no idea what "paraphilic" disorders are, so I can't comment on that. I will say that I don't think homosexual sex is WRONG, in that it fulfills its purpose. I don't think sex between people who can not expect (or want) to have a child be the end result is wrong.
"So when you stop tap dancing and address the same analogy we can have a logical discussion over your “basic inquiry”...what ever that means. "
I don't think I've done any tap dancing, and I wonder why you are trying to say I am. It could be because you have a very strong emotional opinion about the subject, and you seem to be the kind of person who easily creates "us vs. them" situations in their mind. Not sure, but that's what I suspect. If you'd like to have a logical discussion, I'm all for it. If you want to make accusations because I don't agree with you, I'm sorry. Middle School was a long time ago for me and I'm not interested in going back.
You don't like fags, we all get it. "Slander and innuendo becomes you, should you care to cite my “hate” for anyone I’ll engage you in an adult conversation. Love the sinner and hate the sin is my motto, yours is self-evident. "
You're right. I made an assumption based on what I percieve as very strong, angry feelings about the subject at hand and your rude comments to me as well as others. Sorry if my perception was incorrect.
Morally not equivalent to you, but to many others it is. Physically not equivalent in terms of the equiptment involved, but the end result is very often the same. Psychologically... how would you be able to tell?
How is it that you, in high school no less, were exposed to so many homosexual rejection-junkies? In my experience, anyway, there just aren't that many grown men, gay or straight, in high-school. Or did your school have some sort of record for number of out-and-proud homosexual boys?Of course, being Mr World-Traveler that you were, you were obviously such a looker that these evil predators both sought you out and didn't notice the note-taking during these conversations that clearly weren't going to lead to a sexual encounter. When did you settle down enough to have a job where a rejected drag-queen could track you down?
As far as the bullies... that wasn't homosexual recruitment so much as heterosexual rejection. I'd be worried if so many people, both gay and straight, thought I was homosexually approachable.
I've seen a lot of BS on these threads, but usually it's sincere.
I don't think that has been shown at all.
Fair enough, it's your opinion. I don't buy that any of the above are remotely similar to homosexuality, for varying reasons.
"Physically not equivalent in terms of the equipment involved, but the end result is very often the same." "Only in the most venal and shallow terms of personal gratification can this be said. "
Well.. we WERE discussing the physical aspect... you're changing horses midstream to bring in "personal gratification". I'm not sure how to judge the difference in people's personal gratification... but if you want to speak purely of the physical, then my original statement is true. But there is more to the sexual act than just the physical. Personal gratification encompasses the emotional as well as physical, which I believe are probably roughly equal for homosexuals and heterosexuals, depending on the couple.
"Psychologically... how would you be able to tell? " "By understanding the psychology of the most common processes of creation, and clues revolving about the process of recovery. "
The psychology of the most common processes of creation? What does that mean? And what clues revolving about the process of recovery? Assuming homosexuals in the process of recovery are giving you clues about their state of mind, it would only be giving you clues about the state of mind of people who wanted to change their sexual orientation or behavior. This can not be assumed to be anywhere near the mind frame of most homosexuals.
... says the fellow from Psychology Today.
You're wrong. Several enumerations of the molestations in the Catholic Church scandal, including one by the New York Times, show the overwhelming number of molestations were by homosexual priests against teenage boys. In our area, virtually all priestly molestations were homosexual in nature (and there were a great many). If not for homosexual priests, there would have been no scandal to speak of.
The formula:
Consider a population whose gene pool contains the alleles A and a. Hardy and Weinberg assigned the letter p to the frequency of the dominant allele A and the letter q to the frequency of the recessive allele a. Since the sum of all the alleles must equal 100%, then p + q = 1. They then reasoned that all the random possible combinations of the members of a population would equal (p+q)2 or p2+ 2pq + q2. The frequencies of A and a will remain unchanged generation after generation if the following conditions are met:....
You said: if "gayness" is caused by a combination of different alleles, all inocuous in and of themsevles, only expressing "gayness" in combination, then each separate allele would remain in the population passed by carriers, only to manifest "gayness" in rare instances.
But that would still change the equation and eventually lower the gay population (assuming it could get as large as it is to begin with). It might take longer, I'm not sure. But it wouldn't remain constant if the only thing that makes gays "gay" is genetics.
Why? Because it would change the equation from :(p+q)2 or p2+ 2pq + q2 to: p2 + 2pq + .90(q2). In other words, the q2 factor would be constantly reduced by the percentage of gays in the population (I assumed 10 percent for math ease). Each and every contributing gene would fall under this exact same curse. Eventually, those genes -- even if there were hundreds of them -- would decline, at least until gayness were eliminated. At the time gayness no longer exists, the genes could then thrive on the Hardy and Weinburg Equilibrium theory.
That means there MUST be other contributing factors other than genetics. The extent to which genetics is involved is the exact extent at which the gay population would naturally decline. That's just unbiased math and science.
I think that's right.
From your document dump: "The lack of 100% concordance in monozygotic twins suggests that genetic events alone are not responsible for the clefting phenotype".
i.e homosexuality is NOT genetic, homosexuality has NO genetic markers like real diseases, homosexuality is a behavioral disorder that is strictly environmental.
Further: Your study doesn’t cite proof that the Brazilian twins are MZ, your study doesn’t cite that Brazilian twins were Mendelian.
Next time you cite an entire study as your “cite” I’ll assume it’s just more obfuscation.
As far as "commercially driven", what's your source for that?
From your other article: The UI-led study was supported in part by grants from the National Institute of Dental and Craniofacial Research, an institute of the National Institutes of Health. In addition…
YOU: Is gayness genetic? I'm sure that's part of it…
As far as the name-calling and obsession with spittle, it’s quite obvious to ALL that you can’t defend your goofy unsupportable positions, otherwise we’d see responses in with logic, not ad hominem . Poor form!
Don't bother me again.
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