Posted on 07/21/2002 9:00:30 PM PDT by Avenger
A question: when did the usage of the word "oriental" to describe a person fall out of favor among the PC thought police? I recall entering the university around 1990 and being told repeatedly that "oriental" was a racially deragatory term and that "rugs are oriental, not people." I had never heard of such a thing before this and I had been closely involved with a number of "oriental" people in varying capacities for years prior to this. What's up with this? Is there really anything negative about the word "oriental?" I believe that the term is "occidental" for Westerner and "oriental" for people from the Far-East. Does anybody have any thoughts about this? I am curious about the origins of all this.
By the way, don't forget "asian" is racially offensive because "food is asian, not people!" ;-)
There are sub cultures. You can call it a "white" subculture or some other european subgroup.
People who are mixed ethnically are "american" first and "mixed-ethnicity" second. But, if someone is not mixed, does that really matter? I hope not!
I think its after he killed his white wife and her boyfriend.
Um, I think the word you're thinking of is "Orenthal", not "oriental". And he is no Asian neither East, South, nor Central!
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