Well we can tell you didn't actually go through it with a critical eye.
I won't bother. I've done it too many times in the past, and BroJoeK won't blink an eye when you find something wrong. He'll just put it out again later when he thinks you've forgotten.
Between 1832 and the Civil War, tariff policy fluctuated between high tariffs and low tariffs. Between 1832 and 1842, there was a gradual reduction in tariffs, only to be followed by a strongly protectionist period to 1846. The Tariff Act of 1846 reduced tariffs, and tariffs were again reduced by the Tariff Act of 1857.
(U.S. Federal Government Revenues: 1790 to the Present September 25, 2006, Thomas L. Hungerford Specialist in Public Sector Economics Government and Finance Division)
So, with tariffs reduced in 1846 and again in 1857, how can it credibly be claimed that tariffs were the reason for secession? Might the preservation of slavery be the reason, just as Southerners said at the time?