“Tsk, tsk, tsk; fallacious argument.”
Not an argument. A statement of fact.
And....a single pigment, though ONLY one color, gives off "many frequencies"? How so?
Does a color that contains many different pigments give of MORE frequencies, even when it is in the same color family?
Lets take red...there are many different shades of red, yet one and only ONE color red, can be purchased as a single pigment paint, whilst that SAME color, can also be purchased that has more than one pigment to make that SAME color.
Ergo, IF, as you claim, that color gives off many frequencies, BUT one contains ONLY one pigment and others contain at least 2, wouldn't the frequencies change? And IF that was to occur, then wouldn't we see a difference in color, but we DO NOT!