Posted on 09/01/2024 9:07:12 AM PDT by hardspunned
That's nonsensical and provably false.
Russia or rather the Tsardom of all the Russias, had already been "set up" by 1791 with the final partition of the Polish-lithuanian commonwealth.
WW2 was fomented to create Israel (think Balfour Declaration, give from the Crown to Lord Rothschild).
Again, provably nonsensical - the balfour declaration was from 1917. Israel was already setup in many ways after WWI.
Britain in 1847 allied with the French empire and the Ottomans to fight the Tsardom of Russias and prevent the dismemberment of the Ottomans.
The British didn’t want to destroy the Ottoman empire but rather to keep it in a zombie state so no one else would grab it and there would be no fighting over the carcass.
The Belgian excuse was partly an “excuse” - the British gov didn’t care. They were more worried about the German empire being a treat to British trade.
Additional though, the British citizens felt sympathy for “the plucky Belgians”
They split up the Ottoman empire as they wanted it
Why Clemenceau?
The French wanted to grab as much as they could (as they were the winners) - which is no different than what Germany did in 1871.
The Versailles treaty wasn’t the problem as much as allowing German radicals to create the “stab in the back theory” — Germany’s war leaders realised they were losing and surrendered while German troops were still outside Germany’s borders. This prevent the destruction of Germany as happened in 1945, but it confused the German people.
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