More of the same (FWIW):
Abram, who is later named Abraham, is a direct descendant of Shem. According to the genealogies in the Bible, Abram is the tenth generation from Noah through Shem. The genealogy is outlined in the Book of Genesis, specifically in chapters 10 and 11. Here is the lineage from Shem to Abram:
Shem:
Arphaxad (Shem’s son)
Shelah (Arphaxad’s son)
Eber (Shelah’s son)
Peleg (Eber’s son)
Reu (Peleg’s son)
Serug (Reu’s son)
Nahor (Serug’s son)
Terah (Nahor’s son)
Abram (Terah’s son)
Thus, Abram is the great-great-great-great-great-great-great-grandson of Shem. This lineage places Abram within the Semitic line, linking him to the broader heritage of the Semitic peoples.
Where does it say that Shem is semetic? Or that all the people between shem and abraham are semetic?
It is generally thought that the first covenant that God made specifically with the Jewish people was the covenant with abraham. The covenant God made with Adam and Noah was with all people. Only the covenants God made with Abraham and Moses are specifically with the Jewish people. What Jesus did was to make a new covenant again. This new covenant that Jesus made— like in the beginning— is with all people.
Jews to this day do not recognize the covenant God made with all people through Jesus. Rather they recognize the covenant that God made with all people through Noah. So if you’re a gentile—and you ask an observant, knowledgeable Jew how you can be good—he’ll say follow the covenant God made with Noah.
All this suggests that perhaps Noah was not semetic.