“He had no intent to deceive therefore no plagiarism.”
Okay, then the Biblical writers has no intent to plagarize, so no plagiarism.
Except the whole ideology behind the flood myth was written about by the Sumerians and inherited by the Babylonians long before they were written in the Bible. Yet the writers of the Bible claimed it as uniquely their own of their own God.
The stories are the same, but which was documented first? And which was so closely mirrored many many years later? If they did not disclose where they got the ideology in the first place then they meant to hide where they sourced that ideology and call it their own.
This is plagiarism. Have either of you ever even read the prior Sumerian/Babylonian flood myth to compare them? The ideology of constructing an ark and a great flood was not uniquely Biblical and it was documented long long before...