Arthur born in 1829 to a father who was a British subject would have automatically been a British subject under British law.
I suspect that this would be the case even had his father naturalized as a US citizen before Arthur’s birth. England still recognized perpetual allegiance until 1870.
Arthur born in 1829 to a father who was a British subject would have automatically been a British subject under British law.
Chester Arthur was born to a father who was British subject and an Irish citizen. Born in Vermont, it did not matter what was the status of his parents.
That the British could claim him as a subject make no difference. If the British could pass a British law claiming all white persons born in its former colonies were subjects of the king, would that make all white people born in the former colonies ineligible for the Presidency?