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To: FLT-bird
The purpose of it however is to put land to maximum economic productive use.

Then the state/government can "condemn" the property and take it under eminent domain laws, through due process.

I do not believe there is anything in the USA comparable to this "quirky" British law - nor should there be.

10 posted on 12/11/2023 7:59:02 AM PST by PGR88
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To: PGR88

I do not believe there is anything in the USA comparable to this “quirky” British law - nor should there be.


https://www.nolo.com/legal-encyclopedia/state-state-rules-adverse-possession.html

Under certain circumstances, a trespasser can occupy and gain legal ownership to land via the doctrine of “Adverse Possession.” To qualify as adverse possession sufficient to get ownership, the trespasser’s occupation of the land typically must be:

hostile (meaning without permission, though the definition can vary)
actual (meaning physical occupation)
open and notorious (meaning the possession is obvious to onlookers), and
exclusive and continuous for a certain period of time.
The time period that the trespasser must occupy the land varies by state. To find the period for your state, see the table below.


12 posted on 12/11/2023 8:02:29 AM PST by PeterPrinciple (Thinking Caps are no longer being issued but there must be a warehouse full of them somewhere.)
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To: PGR88
I do not believe there is anything in the USA comparable to this "quirky" British law - nor should there be.

You might want to look up "adverse posession" laws. It's a common feature of most nations that inherit the British common law, like we did.

33 posted on 12/11/2023 9:54:39 AM PST by zeugma (Stop deluding yourself that America is still a free country.)
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To: PGR88

Adverse possession is part of the common law and is covered by state statute AFAIK in all 50 states. The requirements to satisfy all the elements of adverse possession will differ by state, but it definitely exists.


37 posted on 12/11/2023 10:04:13 AM PST by FLT-bird
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