I still don’t understand how a state can make a ruling on a U.S. constitutional issue and apply it to a state law\requirement that doesn’t exist ?
Looks like it’s not just the primary “disqualification” but also the general......The Colorado election laws regarding ballot access requirements does not appear to include the 14th amendment “disqualification”...
https://www.coloradosos.gov/pubs/elections/Candidates/packets/PresidentAndVicePresident.pdf
[1] Article II, Section 1(5), U.S. Constitution
[2] Article II, Section 1(1), U.S. Constitution
[3] Amendment XXII, Section 1, U.S. Constitution
https://www.leg.colorado.gov/sites/default/files/2021a_250_signed.pdf
I’m probably reading\understanding it all wrong.
No, you are seeing it correctly.
The Colorado has no legal basis.