[Right_Wing_Madman]

South had a right to secede

The worldwide abolitionist movement coincided with the advent of the Industrial Revolution (farms didn't need as many hands), which started about 25 years after the states approved the U.S. constitution. The constitution, as written, was not capable of reconciling labor demands between the industrial northern states and the agrarian southern states during this radical transition period of the mid-1800s.

[Brass Lamp]

The constitution, as written, was not capable of reconciling labor demands between the industrial northern states and the agrarian southern states during this radical transition period of the mid-1800s.

A simplistic (and therefore wrong) view which ignores the more complex truth that the economies of both the North and the South were still predominantly agrarian and would remain so until some parts of each transitioned into serviced-based economies in the mid to late twentieth century. There was never actually a region of the US which was predominantly industrial, not even the "rust belt". In truth, the economy of the South was PROPORTIONATELY (comparing populations) as industrial, but manufacture was never the majority employer of any large region of the country.