“However, the South had a perverse advantage over all free states in representation, because they got 3/5ths benefit from every slave they could create (breed) or import in, while the North wasn't benefiting from that.”
Didn't the 3/5ths compromise apply to all the slave states - north and south - at the time the constitution was ratified?
What states had more slaves, the Free states or the Slave states?
63 posted on 08/01/2022 9:52:22 AM PDT by ConservativeMind
(Trump: Befuddling Democrats, Republicans, and the Media for the benefit of the US and all mankind.)