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To: DiogenesLamp

The south was not sufficiently aggrieved by Yankee corruption to secede from the union. Yankees did not have a monopoly on influence peddling.

Lincoln did not appear on the ballot and did not receive one vote in the south during the 1860 election and yet won an electoral victory. The south realized that it would be a permanent political minority and would be dictated to by the central government on the question of slavery. The south seceded to form its own government to control its own culture, economy and destiny. The question of slavery was not a primary reason for secession but rather a symptom. The south did not want to be told how to live by Yankees.


150 posted on 08/01/2022 11:36:23 AM PDT by DeplorablePaul ("..)
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To: DeplorablePaul

Astute summary.


170 posted on 08/01/2022 12:17:20 PM PDT by DiogenesLamp ("of parents owing allegiance to no other sovereignty.")
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To: DeplorablePaul; BroJoeK
The question of slavery was not a primary reason for secession but rather a symptom. The south did not want to be told how to live by Yankees.

And the North was telling the South what to do about what?

Slavery.

236 posted on 08/01/2022 3:19:13 PM PDT by x
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