If they have no such authority, where did the 18th Amendment (Prohibition, and its later abolition) alterations come from?
The logic around constitutionality rather falls down when 103 years ago the USA was able to do that. There’s no natural right to get drunk and no natural obligation to ban it.
The basis of a ban on the sale of alcohol was, decades of lobbying by teetotallers and religious leaders saying it would ameliorate poverty and other societal problems.
That’s the precedent. If a powerful enough lobby had the support in Washington and its argument for a ban on the sale of gas guzzlers would ameliorate pollution and other envoy problems, what would prevent it being passed as an amendment (which could then be repealed by further amendments)?
It's called an Amendment. There's a process for it. Learn how it works before bloviating.