She’s still not a NBC.
Ted Cruz?
Can we send Barry the Muslim and his husband back to Kenya now??
Since when did legal citizenship matter to Democrats?
Judge Deady was in a time and place when they still remembered what it meant to a subject, and how that was determined.
He understood the difference between territorial jurisdiction (the police power) and political jurisdiction (the concept of being the subject of a sovereign, whether a potentate or a state).
Eastman and Meece made this clear in their brief in Hamdi.
Those born in this country whose parents are non-immigrant aliens inherit the nationality of their parents. Period.
Harris isn’t even a citizen, and neither is the child of the gobernadora de Baja California Sur, who drove to Brawley from Mexicali to drop her spawn.
The geographic location of birth is only part of the equation.
bump
NBC includes them, stop with the foolishness.
What needs to happen is for Congress to legislate that people who are here only temporarily—here illegally, or on tourist, student, or permanent residence cards—the children they have while here are *not* citizens.
People who are here on green cards— their minor children will become citizens when they become citizens.
And the children of US citizens born abroad must live here for a certain amount of time while growing up (something like 5 years or more) in order to receive US citizenship upon completion of their residency period.
(This is because there are people who come here, get their US citizenship, then return to their home country with the added value of being a US citizen—i have met people who do this. Definitely helps in the marriage market, but they don’t want to be here or contribute to this nation.)
Until this is legislated, all those you mention are NBC so it is foolish to run around saying they are not
This isue is going to come up again very soon.
Thanks for a good read.
I have been thinking that's where English law solidified under Jus Soli.
I mean, have you ever considered what would have happened had it been decided the other way?
I have, and it leads me to conclude that the case was decided on the basis of what the King needed, and not so much on the basis of what was actually true.
It's my understanding that England originally had the Roman law version of "subject", but at some point in their history, they solidified behind Jus Soli.
Why?