I don’t think so.
It depends heavily on the percent of the population vaxxed.
For example, assume 90% vaxxed. If half of those dying were vaxxed and half were unvaxxed, then that would indicate that the vaxx reduced chances of dying by a factor of 9. That would be a good thing.
I meant to be clearer to say there would be equal numbers as per their representative percentages in the population.
Thanks.