I am saying the North produced 28% of the European exports and the South produced 72% of the European exports.
You somehow believe that the North could buy nearly 3/4ths of the imports without explaining how it is possible to buy these things with only 28% of the money. You are suffering cognitive dissonance here.
They could not do it without somehow getting that money away from the Southern producers who created the trade deficit with Europe.
And therein lies the hidden (through deliberate propaganda) reason for the war.
“ You somehow believe that the North could buy nearly 3/4ths of the imports without explaining how it is possible to buy these things with only 28% of the money.”
Yet you claim the North took 60% of the profits from Southern production. How do all these numbers add up?
Before you go on about the North raping the South financially, is it your contention that in the 1930s when virtually all automotive production came out of just a few states near the Great Lakes, that all profits from shipping, selling, repairing, and so on of cars across the country raped Michigan and Indiana?
Because that’s what you’re claiming happened in the antebellum period. You cannot seem to fathom the idea that bankers making loans, shipping companies moving product, warehousing firms holding product, and manufacturers using Southern Cotton to produce finished goods could do so in the course of normal capitalist activities. In fact I’m beginning to think you’re not a capitalist at all.