Yes there are, pants on fire.
And your poison vax is not safe OR effective.
That is a fact, and it is not in dispute.
Metrobank wrote: “I am okay with my logic. Rigorous testing of all drug candidates is what the FDA is for. We don’t need these experimental vacs as there are plenty of existing proven drugs that knock the virus out. Not sure why you are so dug in on your position here.”
No, there are no ‘existing proven drugs’ that are as effective as the vaccines.
Yes there are, pants on fire.
And your poison vax is not safe OR effective.
That is a fact, and it is not in dispute.
Bull. You are either stupid or intentionally aren’t paying attention. HCQ+ZPak+Zinc works, ivermectin works, Budison works.
No, there are no ‘existing proven drugs’ that are as effective as the vaccines.
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Are there cases of Covid-19 that occur after prophylactic treatment with Ivermectin protocol, HCQ protocol, Remdesivir, Regeneron and convalescent plasma?
Such cases after inoculation w/mRNA therapy are categorized as *breakthrough* and have received a lot of publicity around the world over the past 6 months. What is the delta between *breakthrough* cases and cases contracted after therapeutic treatment?
Does mRNA inoculation prevent contraction or transmission of COVID 19?
Does treatment with the above listed therapeutics encourage viral mutation that goes unnoticed similar to that seen when inoculation suppresses symptoms? What is the differential between COVID-19’s genome and that of the *variants*?
The inoculation was designed for the specific virus Covid-19. Is this species still in circulation? How can this be known, given that the only test used for diagnosis is actually incapable of being diagnostic and is normally run only for the original COVID 19?
Are the governmental health authorities using different cycle rates for samples from those inoculated versus those who are not? Why?
Are the criteria for categorizing cases of COVID 19 the same as the criteria for categorizing adverse reactions from the inoculations? Why not?
Humoral immunity to SARS 1 has been shown to last for 17 years and counting. What is the genomic differential between SARS 1 and COVID_19?
What percentage of the adult population is estimated to have innate immunity to COVID 19? What percentage has acquired immunity gained from recovery after infection? When those numbers are combined with the purported number of people inoculated, does the sum approach the threshold for what has, until recently, been called *herd immunity*? If it does, why are world governments so focused on 100% global inoculation?