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To: woodpusher

True. I was just using 1776 as a point after which it became an issue independent of England. I suppose 1781 or 1783 could be used. Because imo, attributing slavery in the colonies pre 1776 to what has become the US is inaccurate, the colonies only “control” was whether an individual purchased a slave or not. As another poster noted a couple states attempted to abandon slavery earlier, but were overridden by England.


83 posted on 02/19/2021 9:21:35 AM PST by SJackson (If they bring a knife to the fight, we bring a gun...folks in Philly like a good brawl, BH Obama)
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To: SJackson
I suppose 1781 or 1783 could be used. Because imo, attributing slavery in the colonies pre 1776 to what has become the US is inaccurate, the colonies only “control” was whether an individual purchased a slave or not. As another poster noted a couple states attempted to abandon slavery earlier, but were overridden by England.

I agree that the States are not responsible for what was imposed upon the colonies. The north did not exactly free those who were slaves. Largely, they sold them south. The 1860 census showed more free blacks in the slave states than in the free states. What to do with the slaves, if freed, was another problem.

120 posted on 02/19/2021 12:05:24 PM PST by woodpusher
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