Assuming that what you wrote is accurate, why did only one police officer fire at only one protestor? Why were there no warnings issued (or were there?) Why was no tear gas or other non lethal response deployed before the mob approached the perimeter where lethal force would be used (or was there?)
The handling of the police response suggests gross incompetence at the very least.
Final protective positions do not call for non-lethals. Ever.
The lack of a forceful command concerns me, it is part of training; but if he thinks he doesn’t have time.....it becomes subjective. He is only thinking about protecting his principals.
Why only one shooter? Each person has a reaction time. There was incompetence, but not the shooter.