I just don’t see where this writer is pulling stats like that. I’ll leave the question open and unanswered. I speculate that between the two vaccines probably building antibodies thus the positive test for the virus. Possibly found the answer p42 on FDA pdf:
“It is possible that the imbalance in suspected COVID-19 cases occurring in the 7 days postvaccination represents vaccine reactogenicity with symptoms that overlap with those of COVID-19. Overall though, these data do not raise a concern that protocol-specified reporting of suspected, but unconfirmed COVID-19 cases could have masked clinically significant adverse events that would not have otherwise been detected.”
Yes, I agree with you. I think they are interpreting something in the suspected cases, but it is not clear to me either. It does seem like a lot of overall suspected cases, both in the vaccine group and the placebo group (~3000 out of ~40,000?), although less for vaccine. Why are they only saying suspected? They never actually did the PCR test on any of the participants?