Posted on 06/07/2020 3:31:30 AM PDT by zeestephen
The George Floyd autopsy states he had 19 ng/mL of Meth in his blood. Reference sources say that a fatal dose of Meth begins around 2.5 mg/L. So - I did a two step conversion. First - 2.5 mg would be 2,500,000 ng/L. Second - 2,500,000 ng/L would be 2,500 ng/mL. So - a fatal dose of Meth would be around 2,500 ng/mL, which is more than 100 times the level George Floyd had in his blood. Is that correct? Thanks again.
depends on when he took it
People can develop amazing tolerance to narcotics and function normally at levels that would kill most of us.
Low blood METH concentration indicated he was under the influence of WITHDRAWAL - desperate for his next fix and mentally destabilized.
Agitated so much that the cops had to pull him OUT of the police car to try to ‘calm’ this drug addict down.
Destabilized biochemicals go a long ways to making someone fall dead so much more easily....
All death is ultimately cardiopulmonary arrest. The cop had a knee on his neck for 5 minutes after he stopped moving/talking and after he lost urinary continence. A reasonable person would have checked on his physical condition long before that. I also understand cpr was not started until the ambulance arrived. Sorry but the cop is guilty
Also, fatal dose increases with repeated use (tolerance).
I don't think he was particularly high on meth, but he was high on fentanyl.
The real question is whether his death was deliberate or an accident. A decent lawyer defending the police is going to point out that the change in police policy right after the incident is an attempt to scapegoat the officers.
Ah, now I get it, the cop was kneeling on a handcuffed sleeping black guy, that he may have known from their shared part-time work, and he just inconveniently died in his sleep. Heck, maybe we reward the cop for being there in his last moments? /s
Okay Sherlock, now explain the effects of withdrawal....
What? Can’t eliminate the likely withdrawal effects? So what is your point? Nothing. You fail.
Your math is fine. But I believe that the LD 50 is the concentration of the medication in solvent to cause death and Becuase is enormously complex things like volume of distribution, fat solubility of the drug, first pass effect, mode of ingestion and a thousand other things you cannot make a direct comparison between blood levels and lethal dose
Additionally the fentanyl argument is a complete red herring. If you are tolerant to a drug it takes increasing amounts to achieve the therapeutic goal. I have seen and anesthetized people with enormous tolerance that it takes enough drug to kill an elephant just to hold them still. One cannot make the assumption that any number will imply the effect especially with drugs that demonstrate tolerance and in some cases taxhyphylaxis.
It is not possible to make any judgments about his state of physiology with the numbers released. It is only possible to say he had these drugs or drugs analogous that metabolize to these drugs in his system.
Be careful. It to make sweeping conclusions based on an isolated tox screen.
Strictly speaking as an expert witness your arguments 3 5 and 6
Are easily defeated
I think you are forgetting that based on the information he is probably enormously tolerant and 0.5 lethality probably is for opioid naive
Never mind. Read your subsequent post where you bring up tolerance. My bad.
King Harry Died By Drinking Chocolate Milk
“He was very high on fentanyl, which kills by suppressing breathing.”
Ok...reevaluating my position again! So he WAS high.
I think the defense attorney’s gonna have plenty to get these cops off.
That and meth is not an opioid
As an expert witness, explain this sentence in the autopsy report: “Toxicology (see attached report for full details; testing performed on antemortem blood specimens collected 5/25/20 at 9:00 p.m. at HHC....”
It means that the blood test they are reporting was collected or analyzed at 900 PM on 5/25. HHc is probably Hennepin county something.
It just tells when that sample was collected and run. I find is surprising that they dont have a post Mortem
Here is the deal. We are getting bits and pieces of the forensic record. I said that the OP arguments 3 5 and 6 are easily defeated by expert witness because they seek to link three things that have other interpretations that can kill reasonable doubt. It would take all of 0.4 seconds for an expert to proffer that If the belief was thst the fentanyl was in this concentration the physiological manifestations would be damn near general anesthesia which would put the officers in a much worse position
The problem is we see all shooting in the dark. A forensic record must be viewed in totality. We wont have that until discovery is complete and the trial commences.
I would not make conjecture on anything at this point.
That assumes a whole lot of facts not in evidence starring with your interpretation of the meth level.
You see using evidence to fit your narrative. Its a dangerous thing
You have. I idea if he was high. High is an altered mental state. Depending on a lot of things he could have been totally normal.
The problem with this case comes down to this simple question. Are you going to believe a lot of what ifs and maybes or (were I the prosecutor) are you gonna believe your lying eyes? The videotape is a problem for these cops. The deprived indifference is probably the correct charge
If I were to prosecute this I might be inclined to say you know, all of what the defense is throwing at the wall may even be true, but did it mean that four cops should kneel on the neck of this victim until he passed out and became incontinent and then stayed there for over two minutes more?
And leave it at that. The only hope in my judgment that these cops have is that Ellison (the AG who is an ambitious And evil man) gets swept up in the politics and presents an overcharge that is simply unsustainable. Murder 2 is a reach. I think he might try to figure out how to get this to Murder 1 in the politics of it all (malice and forethought could be established in that two extra minutes will be the line he uses should he try it)
The dilemma is that if he overcharges and the cops are acquitted get ready for the world to burn again
Both antemortem and postmortem blood draws are addressed: “(postmortem femoral blood, HHC Laboratory)....”
No one saw anyone die in that video. He died at the hospital.
“George Floyd 20-3700 Page 2
III. No life-threatening injuries identified
A. No facial, oral mucosal, or conjunctival petechiae
B. No injuries of anterior muscles of neck or laryngeal
structures....”
Cause of death: “Cardiopulmonary arrest”
“II. Natural diseases
A. Arteriosclerotic heart disease, multifocal, severe
B. Hypertensive heart disease
1. Cardiomegaly (540 g) with mild biventricular dilatation
2. Clinical history of hypertension”
“Cross sections of the vessels show multifocal atherosclerosis, with 75% proximal and 75% mid narrowing of the left anterior descending coronary artery; 75% proximal narrowing of the 1st diagonal branch of the left anterior descending coronary artery; 25% proximal narrowing of the circumflex coronary artery; and 90% proximal narrowing of the right coronary artery.”
No conjecture is necessary if you read the autopsy report.
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