“They believe at its height it may have rivalled the largest known post-Roman settlements in Europe.”
I am not clear on the meaning of “post-Roman Settlements” and wonder if their is even a commonly accepted definition of it.
The only definition that comes to mind would be settlements in any area that had once been, but was not later, under the control of the Roman Empire. Would that be right?
From around 400 to 600 or so AD, when Britain became pretty firmly Christian.