Have any doctrines changed as a result of using the more ancient Greek texts than those used in the TR?
The issue is not whether the texts employed by Tischendorf, Griesbach, Westcott, Hort, and the like affected the view of discipling educators, it is whether or not they affirmed or diminished the divinity of the Son of Man, Jesus; and whether or not their copyists were in the business of preserving the Word of God by the absence of whole phrases and even sentences from the texts held superior to them by the majority of contemporary churches.
But regarding the doctrines preached from various English versions we now have, let me ask you:
(1) To whom were the letters in Chapters 2 and 3 of The Revelation written?
(2) To whom was 1 Corinthians 6:19-20 addressed?
(3) If you have taught or preached these passages expositionally, what source gave you the answers for questions (1) and (2) above?