It is not clear what you mean by this. What is your intention here? Where did you get this from? Give us a citation that testifies that James Stuart said this, please, and what he meant by it if he did.
“No Bishop. No King.” / “It is not clear what you mean by this.”
“If bishops were put out of power, “I know what would become of my supremacy,” James objected. “No bishop, no King. When I mean to live under a presbytery I will go to Scotland again.” Willson, p. 198, p. 207.” - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/James_VI_and_I_and_religious_issues
King James had lived in Scotland where bishops ruling the church had been rejected. He foresaw - correctly - that if a congregation could choose who led it, the a nation might think about choosing its ruler: “No Bishop. No King.”
So he instructed the translators to use words supporting a top-down chain of command in the church:
“Another rule sought to control the ecclesiastical language of the new version: ‘The old ecclesiastical words [are] to be kept, viz. the word “church” not to be translated “congregation” etc.’ The implementation of this rule was to be a persistent source of Puritan objections to the KJV, as Puritans, appropriating Tyndale’s argument, preferred ‘congregation’ to ‘church’, ‘wash’ to ‘baptise’, ‘elder’ or ‘senior’ to ‘bishop’and ‘minister’ to ‘priest’.”
It is a case where the KJV deliberately translated things improperly to fit the politics of the day.