No one was there before the old testament? Why not? How come? proven how? Prove no one lived there before this time.
Territory borders in the Americas were defined by dialect and the ability to understand the deep southern drawl or not.
But they had a universal physical sign language that was understood by all tribes and clans everywhere.
Not being written and recorded as word means not a thing...
No one was there before the old testament?
WTH are you talking about? Not one thing you've said has had any bearing on this topic, and NOWHERE have I said there was no one there (by "there" I guess you mean India?) before the OT.