“I suspect the logical explanation is: Founders changed Jefferson's original term “treasonous insurrections”, meaning white loyalists, to “domestic insurrections” so that those who wished to hear the words “slave revolt” could and those who didn't wouldn't.
Laurel or Yanny
Does anyone disagree?”
Thomas Jefferson does.
And author Adam Goodheart, who can scarcely be described as pro-southern, does in his balanced presentation “Domestic Insurrection.
See: https://theamericanscholar.org/domestic-insurrection/#
And author Adam Goodheart, who can scarcely be described as pro-southern, does in his balanced presentation “Domestic Insurrection.
Why would being "pro-Southern" have anything to do with anything?
For some reason or other, you guys are taking the current liberal line -- that "domestic insurrections" referred only to slave rebellions.