Tariffs are ultimately paid by those buying the goods at retail. How could the South, with a population of freemen less than half the North, possibly be more economically subjugated, and yet rich enough to pay more tariffs for goods, at the same time?
Tariffs are ultimately paid by those buying the goods at retail. How could the South, with a population of freemen less than half the North, possibly be more economically subjugated, and yet rich enough to pay more tariffs for goods, at the same time?
Tariffs are paid for by the owners of the goods. The goods brought back were sold on the open market to anybody. They could be undercut on price though once they had had to pay the high tariffs and they would lose market share.