European colonization is always the implied causation but are there any accounts that would lend credence to the notion of Europeans being somehow immune or less affected by this than the native population(s)? Was salmonella not present in the Americas prior to Spanish colonization?
“are there any accounts that would lend credence to the notion of Europeans being somehow immune or less affected by this than the native population(s)?”
Did the Spanish try to avoid water? Some Europeans did.