Your cohort DiogenesLamp used the Hitler analogy early on in this thread so I figured it was fair game.
But it's still a legitimate question, was the U.S. the aggressor in World War II because they invaded Germany? Or was the invasion a direct result of Germany starting the war in the first place?
Because one person doing something wrong, completely justifies another person doing something wrong.
Or was the invasion a direct result of Germany starting the war in the first place?
You may not be aware of this, but Germany did in fact declare war on us. Congress then moved to declare war on Germany. It was more constitutionally lawful than the Civil War, which did not receive a congressional declaration of war, as outlined in the Constitution.
“But it’s still a legitimate question, was the U.S. the aggressor in World War II because they invaded Germany?”
It sounds like this “legitimate question” may have been troubling you. The answer is no.