Sure.
Let's review the question: “If Jefferson, and the 13 slave states whose representatives signed the DOI, had wanted to put loyalists and their backers in England on the spot, they would have included a reference to “treasonable insurrections,” not “domestic insurrections."
In answer, look at the original draft of the DOI. It includes this grievance: “He has incited treasonable insurrections of our fellow-citizens, with the allurements of forfeiture & confiscation of our property”
This reference to “treasonable insurrections” referred to the actions of the loyalists and is sometimes confused by first-time readers of the DOI with the term “domestic insurrections,” a euphemism for slave insurrections.
The entire passage relating to the treasonable insurrections of loyalists was stricken from the DOI. Somewhere in his writings Thomas Jefferson explains why Congress did not want to deliberately offend the English people (as opposed to the King.)
Surely, then, since you maintain that “domestic insurrection” is a euphemism for “slave insurrection” (as used by Jefferson in the DOI) you can furnish the accounts of the specific slave insurrections that Jefferson was referencing?