No, but as Sir Thomas More was famously quoted, “The world must construe according to its wits; this court must construe according to the law.”
The issue is not our personal morality but the Constitution, the Supreme law of the Land, which did not forbid slavery until the Reconstruction Amendments. The Constitution, probably the greatest most inspired political document ever, was absolutely necessary to “form a more perfect union”. The Constitution formed a more perfect union, not a perfect union.
How did declaring that one particular ethnicity of human to be unsuitable for emancipation and citizenship advance the goal of “a more perfect union”?