I intended this to be a lighthearted exchange, but suffice it to say that history has long suspected Richard of murdering his nephews so as to eliminate any other claimants to the throne. While there is no definitive proof that he ordered the murders, he certainly stood to benefit the most from their deaths.
And of course the Henrys and Elizabeth were Tudors, but were their allegiances more closely aligned to Lancastrian or Yorkist sympathies? After all, the Tudor dynasty only originated when Henry killed Richard — the Yorkist usurper — at Bosworth Field.
But there is no evidence that a murder occurred. No evidence whatsoever. And where is the proof that he ordered them to be murdered? There simply is no evidence.
I think I have kept this friendly. But you were the one who suggested I might be a Hillary supporter.