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To: Cold Heat

I’m intrigued as to just how the 1790 Act affected the 14th Amendment, can you elaborate?


164 posted on 01/17/2016 4:38:06 PM PST by RegulatorCountry
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To: RegulatorCountry

Not directly, indirectly.

The 14th uses the terms born or naturalized .......are citizens etc..then it further says that no state shall....abridge privileges or deprive......

So it too, in addition to article 2, have bearing on citizen status.

To change either of them requires amendment unless Congress has the authority.

The error was the term “natural born” mentioned one time in article 2. They should not have tried to define it. They should have tried to amend it.

It’s why we are here arguing today...


165 posted on 01/17/2016 5:08:36 PM PST by Cold Heat
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To: RegulatorCountry
To carry the argument further, in 1790 we did not have the 14th if I recall,(1868) but when they added it, they did not address citizen class which was created either intentionally or inadvertently in article two.

When the wrote the it was the perfect place to fix the two class citizenship issue. But they did not.

if you need to know the authority under which citizenship is granted, you go to the 14th.

IMO, had they allowed the 1790 language to stand until the 14th was written and passed, I think the amendment would have mentioned natural born.

166 posted on 01/17/2016 5:14:43 PM PST by Cold Heat
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To: RegulatorCountry

But that is just conjecture...it is what it is today and has been for a long time..


167 posted on 01/17/2016 5:15:52 PM PST by Cold Heat
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