yeah..the old booze runners found a new way to make money...goading the world into WW2. Don’t forget, it was the progressives that passed Prohibition and it was progressives that ended it...follow the money...always follow the money!
yeah..the old booze runners found a new way to make money...goading the world into WW2. Don’t forget, it was the progressives that passed Prohibition and it was progressives that ended it...follow the money...always follow the money!
The medical records of the time also saw a drop in alcoholism as well as folks who tended to follow the laws saw no real benefit in pursuing what was illegal anyway. There was a drop in alcohol related disorders and crimes and the positive effects of prohibition persisted well after prohibition ended as the per capita rate of alcoholism never achieved the same heights as it had prior to prohibition but instead stabilized to the general rates we saw thru the last decade of the 90’s. So the question is was the ending of prohibition itself one direct causative factor for the decline in murder rates or was the actual lowering of the alcoholism rate(despite the ending of prohibition) a direct or indirect cause?