Instead of name-calling, maybe you can give us your interpretation of Article 10 of the US Constitution, and show us how its wording can be interpreted as an implicit authorization of secession by fiat. I think we're in agreement that there is nothing implicitly forbidding or allowing secession in this article. My reading of the article implies that it does not allow secession at will because of strictures on what states can or can't do without Congressional authorization. Show me what I'm missing in the Constitution.
I think we're in agreement that there is nothing implicitly forbidding or allowing secession in this article.
should say EXPLICITLY forbidding or allowing rather than "implicitly".
Here is another thread on Jeff Davis and his arrest and non trial.