John forced himself on wives and daughters. Richard forced himself on the sons. What a family.
As I understood it, the charter was for the rights of nobles. Only later was it interpreted as the rights of all free men. The nobles and kings didn’t give a farthing for the common man.
Rumor or reality?
I have no use for “royalty”, but other than rumour what caused you to accuse Richard of being a homo?
The myth that Richard was a homosexual was invented in the 20th century. There is no historical evidence for it.
Not quite. There were sections of the charter that expressly related to noble rights, but there were also sections that related to the rights of all 'free men'. Now, in 1215, most of the population was still in various of servitude (serfdom, etc), so it certainly didn't apply to anywhere near everyone, only a fairly privileged minority, but it was still a lot broader than just nobles. And over the centuries, the number of men who were 'free men' increased more and more and the rights granted by Magna Carta became more and more widely available.
Actually, i believe the charter established the house of commons.
Not enough time to challenge ALL your observations...
But first, Richard had no legitimate sons....hence the crown went to John...