Actually the result of my answer is very clear.......none of the Ordinances of Secession contains language that supports any assertion about slavery.
You’re dodging the question, but that doesn’t surprise me.
Why does your statement “the official statements of the secession conventions were those approved by the people” apply to the ordinances but not the declarations?
None?
Alabama:
"Whereas, the election of Abraham Lincoln and Hannibal Hamlin to the offices of president and vice-president of the United States of America, by a sectional party, avowedly hostile to the domestic institutions…"
"And as it is the desire and purpose of the people of Alabama to meet the slaveholding States of the South…"
Texas:
"WHEREAS, The recent developments in Federal affairs make it evident that the power of the Federal Government is sought to be made a weapon with which to strike down the interests and property of the people of Texas, and her sister slave-holding States…"
Virginia:
"...and the Federal Government having perverted said powers not only to the injury of the people of Virginia, but to the oppression of the Southern slave-holding States"