I haven’t made my argument and I’m not going to. I’ve argued over this enough the past several years. But do you actually think a man like Churchill, with obvious divided loyalties, would have been constitutionally eligible?
I wasn’t commenting on Churchill’s eligibility - I was simply saying he would have been a better President than most that we have had. It’s called making a point, not a literal legal case.
As for his loyalties? He was more pro American than many Americans are today.
If he was born a citizen and retained that citizenship, then he would have been eligible. The constitution says nothing about "divided loyalties".
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Now you know all you need to know about “C. Edmund Wright.”
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