Reliable or not, those are the figures being put out by the people who make it their job to come up with such figures. No doubt they are a statistical extrapolation. Till someone presents an argument that there are better figures, I will have no choice but to use what is available.
Second, I don't suppose that figure of 2% deliberately excludes alcohol and prescription drugs? If so, why?
I would assume it does, and because those are legal.
Citation to 2%, please.
Will you also now apply that same principle to the figures showing declining opiate use in late-19th-century America?