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To: A_perfect_lady

You’re getting words mixed up again. “Taphas” is the means by which the fellow induced the girl to “shakab” (which means to “lay”, and by figurative meaning, have sex) with him. And again, that’s but one sense of the English word “capture”, not all senses (which renders English a more corrupt language than Hebrew).

I don’t think I need to say twice what I already said. It isn’t too long ago that “shakab” as a result of “taphas” (no violence) resulted in a marriage in the USA, remember—but never in the case of “khazaq”-induced “shakab”, which is violent rape.


361 posted on 05/05/2014 8:27:22 PM PDT by Olog-hai
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To: Olog-hai

So I’ll ask again ... in which verse does it specifically say that the violent rape of a NON-BETROTHED woman ends in the perpetrator’s death? You know, something that differentiates not between whether she’s betrothed or not, but whether it was by force or not. (Although it’s clear that Taphas does include rape, and how you can deny it when it is YOU who gave me that link, I do not know.)


362 posted on 05/05/2014 8:29:33 PM PDT by A_perfect_lady
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To: Olog-hai

And by the way, there is nothing in the link you gave that indicates that Taphas is non-violent. It says SEIZE, CAPTURE, HOLD, ARREST, TAKE. It can include MANIPULATE but it clearly also says SEIZE, CAPTURE, HOLD, ARREST, and TAKE.


365 posted on 05/05/2014 8:31:52 PM PDT by A_perfect_lady (.)
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