I didn't ask you for a definition of our laws or Hebrew semantics. I asked you if YOU feel it's rape to manipulate a 13 year old girl into sex.
Jurisprudence is as independent of my feelings with US federal/state/local law as with Biblical judgments. Sounds like you prefer the “rule of man” to the rule of law in any case. Should all govern according to personal feelings?
I see with every new post you get more and more evasive. It’s not my fault that you dislike the specific meanings of “khazaq” and “taphas”.
But if you’re trying to ask me if I regard the case in Deuteronomy 22:28-29 as being equivalent to today’s case of statutory rape, then I say it is—and would also say that the judgment listed therein is equivalent to what Jesus described as one written by Moses because of the “hardness of (the Israelites’) hearts”. (I don’t know how you would want that act punished.)