Fair enough. As long as we include the circumstances of the case, to the relatively minor extent they are known.
Here’s an interesting link to what little we know about Grant and Jones, including primary sources.
http://www.yandtblog.com/?p=288
Jones was probably a gift to Grant from his father-in-law, as it seems unlikely he would have had the capital to buy him at market value. But he certainly could have sold him, probably for $1000+, rather than free him.
“Jones was probably a gift to Grant from his father-in-law, as it seems unlikely he would have had the capital to buy him at market value. But he certainly could have sold him, probably for $1000+, rather than free him.”
Well alrighty then that makes it OK. As long as you receive the slave as a gift no harm no foul. Now I get it. :-)