Yep. Yet the natives were murdered none-the-less, weren’t they?
Two questions:
1. Is the biblical text responsible for intentionally misuse of exegesis?
2. Is the value of the biblical text dependent on those who intentionally misuse exegesis?
To demonstrate logical problem your criticism in another argument, if the Indians were killed with firearms:
1. Is the firearm responsible for the intentional misuse of firearms?
2. Is the value of firearms eliminated because they were intentionally misused?